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I don't get it... If the test participants are encouraged to use condoms, etc, and rightly so, and if they do use condoms then the use of the condoms alone should 99%+ prevent the contraction of HIV. So, how then could the efficacy of the injection of these anti bodies in preventing HIV infection actually be assertained? Or is it that some test subjects are speciffically picked because they choose not to use condoms anyway?
Josejavier
Hey Richard, I'm not expert on this but I understand it. It is a blinded study, two groups, one gets the antibodies and the others get a placebo. Both group get the same kind of perks or preventative methods, condoms, counseling, PrEP, etc, you name it.S, if both group have the same combo, and the only variable is one got the antibodies and the other did not, then those perks wash away and you can extract efficacy by comparing results in both arms of study.
May 18, 2016 • Wilton Manors